When reading through LDS scripture and other inspired sermons, or revelations from God, we might find ourselves confused on the language God speaks.
We might also find a discrepancy or befuddlement when considering the definition and purpose of translation, as far as linguistics goes.
For example, I was taught that the purpose of translation is for the comprehension of the readers or receivers. Naturally, when translating a foreign language, the end result would then be in the reader’s language, would it not?
Isn’t that the whole point of translation?
I can’t imagine hiring a translator to help me read something in a foreign language, and having him then give it to me in a third language rather than my own.
But when we look to the Book of Mormon, that’s exactly what we see. It was translated from language A to language B, neither of which were the native or colloquial tongue of the recipients.
The Book of Mormon went from a supposed “Reformed Egyptian” (which remains unverified in any ancient artifacts or scrolls) to a 1600’s Old English, with thee and thou and most verbs ending in eth, the signatures of Shakespearean or King James English, which was the language of the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
This was however not the language of Joseph Smith and his followers in 1830.
Compare it to Joseph Smith’s journal entries, or his published narrative in what is now Joseph Smith History, found in the LDS Pearl of Great Price. He wrote in regular modern English as we do today, albeit with a much fancier syntax and vocabulary. 😉
So, Joseph Smith spoke modern English. Joseph Smith wrote in modern English. But the Book of Mormon was translated to Old English, dated 200-300 years prior.
Makes no sense.
But wait, it gets worse.
Because when we turn to the D&C and read revelations from God, spoken in the first person supposedly from Himself, we again run into Old English.
So does God speak Old English?
But why would God speak Old English? Isn’t that the language of the Great Apostasy? It wouldn’t have been an inspired tongue.
(And now I’m wondering if the Spanish or French, or any other non-English language, versions of the BOM and D&C are also written in their medieval counterparts!)
Definitely makes one wonder!
Personally, I like to employ Occam’s razor, which is an established tool to increase the likelihood of ascertaining truth. It is that the simplest explanation is correct.
Explanation 1: God speaks the language of the great apostasy, but only when written in English (the other languages are exempt from God’s language), and the Book of Mormon was translated into God’s language, not the readers’ own language.
Explanation 2: Joseph Smith was manipulative and knew that a document would more likely be received and considered scripture to his English speaking audience, if it was in what sounded to be like official scripture language.
Which one is more likely to be true?
I’ll let you decide!
